Holy Week Reflection: Did Judas Receive Communion?

Paul’s first letter to the Corinthians has two sections which affect the way we receive communion today.  One is in the 11th chapter, where Paul warns his readers that receiving communion is a dangerous affair.  He says:

“Whoever, therefore, eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord.  Examine yourselves, and only then eat of the bread and drink of the cup.  For all who eat and drink without discerning the body, eat and drink judgment against themselves.  For this reason many of you are weak and ill, and some have died.” – 1 Corinthians 11:27-30

The other is in the 5th chapter, where Paul chastises them for maintaining fellowship with a man in a public incestuous relationship.  Did they want outsiders to think the Church approved of that kind of nonsense?

This has led the Catholic Church to two conclusions.  First, a person who knows he’s guilty of mortal sin should personally abstain from receiving communion.  This is found in the Code of Canon Law section 916.

“A person who is conscious of grave sin is not to receive the body of the Lord without sacramental confession.”  

The second conclusion is that if a person publicly persists in grave sin, that person should be refused communion.  In other words, it goes beyond a person examining himself and deciding not to receive. folks are obliged to say “no” when such a person presents himself for Communion.  This is found in Canon 915.

“Those who are obstinately persevering in manifest grave sin are not to be admitted to Holy Communion.”  

One of the most common objections to this practice centers on Judas’ presence at the Last Supper.  It goes like this:

“If Jesus would give Communion to Judas, what right does the Church have to deny it to me?”

That’s what I want to look at today.

Did Judas Receive?  

The first question we need to ask is whether the premise of the assertion is true.  Was Judas actually given Communion?  John’s Gospel says he left the Last Supper early.  The question is… how early?

Let's dig into the text of all four Gospels.  [LINK]  Here is how the events break down:

Here’s one thing we can say for sure;  According to John, Judas left immediately after the “One of you will betray me” statement.  But John’s Gospel doesn’t record the words of institution, so we need to look elsewhere for more info.

From there you look at Matthew/Mark and Luke, but it quickly becomes clear that the authors have arranged the events differently.  Matthew has the betrayal prediction before the words of institution.  Luke places it afterwards. 

So if you only had Matthew/Mark + John, it would appear certain that Judas didn’t receive communion.  But if you only had Luke + John, it would seem equally certain he did.  Therefore the matter is ambiguous.  We’re not certain if Judas received communion or not. 

Personally, I think Matthew/Mark’s account is more accurately reflects the real sequence.  Why?  Three reasons:

1. Matthew was actually there, so I’m inclined to privilege his recollection. 
2. John’s account makes it look like Judas left early on in the evening.  
3. Given the context of the Passover Liturgy, it makes more sense for Jesus’ words of institution to come at the end of the meal.  

But that’s just my guess.  Either way, we have our first answer to the argument:

“You’re basing your argument on it being clear that Judas received communion.  But that’s not clear.  Matthew and Mark’s accounts would indicate he’d left beforehand.”

Does it Even Matter?

However, let’s suppose Luke’s account is sequentially accurate and Judas DID receive.  Would this invalidate the Catholic practices mentioned above?

Well, it would be fair to say that Judas had already turned his heart away from Jesus by the time of the Last Supper.  That means Judas shouldn’t have received Communion.  But that’s all on him.  He should have taken it upon himself to abstain.

The only time you’re supposed to be DENIED communion is if your status is publicly known.  And according to John’s Gospel, Judas’ ill-intent wasn’t known:

"Some thought that, because Judas had the common purse, Jesus was telling him, 'Buy what we need for the festival'; or, that he should give something to the poor." - John 13:29

That means Jesus wouldn’t be contradicting His Church’s practice by giving Judas communion.  Judas’ sin wasn’t public yet. 

He (hypothetically) allowed Judas to receive - just as He allowed the fallen Apostle to betray Him.  Both things were terribly wrong for Judas to do.

But the bottom line is:  We shouldn’t be trying to imitate Judas.