The Catholic Church believes and teaches that Mary, the mother of Jesus, remained a virgin her whole life. However, many Catholics have experienced the incredulity and shock of their Evangelical friends when they share that idea. It seems preposterous and anti-Biblical to them.
Particularly, it seems to many that Matthew 1:25 is a clean refutation to the idea.
Is it? Let's dive in.
The Passage and its Implication:
Matthew chapter 1 describes Joseph learning that Mary was pregnant, but then having an angel tell him to take her as his wife anyway. Verse 25 reads:
“He (Joseph) took his wife (Mary), but knew her not until she had borne a son; and he named him Jesus.”
For many people, the word "until" naturally implies a reversal of a situation. For instance, if I said:
“I stayed inside until the rain stopped.”
Most people would read into that the implication that I went outside when the rain stopped. Likewise, if the Bible passage says:
Joseph did not have relations with Mary until she bore Jesus...
The implication would seem to follow that he did have relations with her afterward.
“He (Joseph) took his wife (Mary), but knew her not until she had borne a son; and he named him Jesus.”
What is the Greek Word?
But the Greek word which is translated in Matt 1:25 as “until” is “heos”. It actually has a variety of uses in the New Testament. Let’s look at some examples:
It is found a few sentences earlier when Matthew writes, “From Abraham to David were fourteen generations...” [Matt 1:17]. Here the word "heos" is translated as “to”. It is used to indicate a definite span of time.
Elsewhere Matthew used “heos” when he recorded Jesus saying, “You, Capernaum, shall be brought down to Hades” [Matt 11:23]. There the word is once again translated as “to” and references a defined distance.
Judging by these uses, it seems the word "heos" is meant to indicate some kind of extent, duration, distance. It can be rendered in English with the words "to", "till", "until", and "unto".
Does it Always Imply a Reversal?
Now to the major question. Does the word always imply a reversal?
Well... no. There are also instances where the word is translated as “until” but cannot imply the reversal of a situation. Let's look at a few examples:
John's Ministry in the Desert:
"The child (John the Baptist) grew and became strong in spirit; and he lived in the wilderness until he appeared publicly to Israel." - Luke 1:80
This passage says John the Baptist stayed in the wilderness until he began his public ministry. Does that mean he left the wilderness when he began it? Nope. John stayed in the wilderness after he appeared publicly too.
How Long is Christ With us?:
At the close of Matthew's Gospel, Jesus says:
“I will be with you always, until the end of the age.” - Matthew 28:20
Jesus says He will be with them until the end of the age. Does that mean Jesus won’t be with them afterward? Clearly not. Jesus is going to be with us forever and ever.
When to Read Scripture?:
Lastly in 1Timothy 4:13 we read the following instructions from Paul to Timothy:
“Until I arrive, attend to the reading and teaching."
Does Paul intend for Timothy to quit reading scripture and teaching after Paul arrives? Obviously not.
Revisiting the Passage:
Matthew 1:25 is meant to reinforce the virgin birth by saying Joseph never touched Mary prior to Christ’s birth. While it is natural for English speakers to infer from this that Joseph consumated the marriage afterward, the words don't require that to be the case. As to what happened afterward, this text is silent.
So how should a Catholic respond, in practice? It might sound like this:
"A Catholic reads Matthew 1:25 in the same way he reads Luke 1:80. In English, the word 'until' typically implies some kind of reversal after a period of time. But that is less often the case in the Greek language.
In Luke 1:80, the text says John the Baptist stayed in the wilderness until he began his ministry. But we know he stayed in the wilderness afterward too. The word 'until' did not imply a reversal there.
We believe the same thing about Matthew 1:25. Joseph did not 'know' Mary until she bore a son... and he didn't know her afterward either."
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