Years ago I made a [post] about why the Council of Trent had to reject Luther's doctrine of Faith Alone. The issue had nothing to do with the role of "works". But rather, a flawed concept of what was entailed in a "saving faith".
In short, Luther's concept of "saving faith" sounds just fine until you ask the question:
What happens if a man lives a life of grave sin - with no intention to change - but still believes firmly that Jesus is the divine savior who forgives our sins? Is that man still saved?
While our intuitions say he shouldn't be, a close examination of the Lutheran definition of "saving faith" says otherwise. Going by their definition, it is impossible to explain how that hypothetical fella is any less saved than Saint Stephen.
That's the real issue. The Protestant concept of "faith alone" (defined as it is) provides no barrier against this libertine attitude... and almost points us toward it.
I presented that thesis to an acquaintance - a Baptist pastor - and he had an interesting reply. It went like this:
"Well, maybe that means Luther was on the right track. Maybe the true Gospel DOES kinda tempt one toward that attitude. Why else would Paul feel the need to say:
'Should we continue in sin in order that grace may abound? By no means! How can we who died to sin go on living in it?' (Romans 6:1-2)
Why would Paul feel the need to stipulate that? Maybe it is because his Gospel matches Luther's, but he doesn't want people to take that road."
That is what I'd like to look at today. Why did Paul feel the need to say that?